We have observed the reformation movement in the Watchtower Bible & Tract Society is a worldwide phenomenon, from grassroots congregational insider efforts, to dedicated "moles" working for the sake of righteousness within the highest pinnacles of the organization. Will reformation triumph over the next century to Jehovah's glory? Why, or why not? Please validate your answer with supporting Scriptures and commentary.

Everyone is responsible before God to live in accord with their faith and to work in the best interests of their brothers. Each Christian is primarily responsible for continually "reforming" themselves into the image of Jesus Christ. Romans 12:2 exhorts us to "be transformed by making your mind over, that you may prove to yourselves the good and acceptable and perfect will of God." So, it is possible to transform ourselves into willing servants of God, to appreciate Jehovah's perfect will, and to be in accord with it, regardless of the spiritual condition of the Christian congregation.

However, the "reformation" of the organization by humans is not really something that seems possible nor does it seem to have Jehovah's blessing. The reason for this is because Jesus Christ is the head of the congregation. It is his prerogative and responsibility to initiate reforms in his own way and time. For example, Malachi 3:1 says: "Look! I am sending my messenger, and he must clear up a way before me. And suddenly there will come to His temple the true Lord, whom you people are seeking and the messenger of the covenant in whom you are delighting."

While the Watchtower seems to feel that the messenger of the covenant has already come, back in the 1914-1919 period, the facts prove otherwise. For example, the next verse of Malachi says: "But who will be putting up with the day of his coming, and who will be the one standing when he appears?" Elsewhere, Christ himself pleaded with his followers to keep making supplication in order to 'succeed in standing before the Son of man.' Standing before the Son of man has to do with receiving a favorable judgment during the time of tribulation. Since it is clear that the tribulation has not commenced yet, it is also evident that neither has Christ arrived in order to "clear up a way before" Jehovah.

What does it mean that Christ will clear up a way before God? The remainder of Malachi 3:2-3 provides the answer. It reads: "For he will be like the fire of a refiner and like the lye of laundrymen. And he must sit as a refiner and a cleanser of silver and must cleanse the sons of Levi; and he must clarify them like gold and like silver, and they will certainly become to Jehovah people presenting a gift offering in righteousness."

"The sons of Levi" have reference to the anointed priest class in the Christian congregation. The prophecy indicates that during the judgment phase, before Jehovah fully comes and rules as king, that first Christ, the messenger of the new covenant, comes to initiate a complete house cleaning and refining. The apostle Paul referred to this when he advised each minister to be careful how they build upon the foundation and whether they used precious metals, like gold and silver, or hay and stubble, which, of course, would be critical during the fiery judgment period.

Seeing that the prophecies have already announced in advance how Jehovah proposes to effect reform, any human efforts to achieve some sort of organizational reformation would seem futile at best and perhaps faithless and presumptuous at worst.

Thanks for your site. It is a breath of fresh air. My question is, why we get so hung up on chronology, when very little of the Christian scriptures deal with chronology at all? The early Christians did not spend a lot of time on chronology. Even in secular circles, chronology is not an exact science, and open to revision. Should we not be cautious and judicious in our use of all chronology?

So you think that Luke 21:24 doesn't refer to the year 1914? But how about the 7 times of Daniel then? And what do you think the term "at the time appointed" means in Daniel 11:29? And isn't it pretty obvious that Matthew 24:14 has been fulfilled in the 20th century? The preaching work has been very massive through the last decades so I think it would be illogical to think that the fulfillment of that verse (and verses 3-13) would be yet in the future. One more thing: you say that the fact that nothing has changed in the world since 1914 indicates that Jesus didn't become the King in the heavens in 1914. But what about Psalm 110:2 where it says that Jesus would "go subduing in the midst of his enemies"?

Setting aside the date 1914 for a moment and just looking at what actually happened to the Watchtower and the Bible Students back during the First World War, it seems obvious that the appointed times for the nations to trample "Jerusalem" did not end then. And, by an examination of all the relevant prophecies, it becomes evident that not only have the so-called appointed times of the nations not ended, they have not begun yet. (See essay Was 1914 the End of the Gentile Times? )

As for the seven times of Daniel, it may be that the 7 times apply to an indeterminate period yet to be concluded. Or, it may refer to a literal 7-year period that has not commenced yet. The thing to keep in mind is that the prophecy of Daniel is sealed up until the time of the end. The time of the end is the actual conclusion of the system of things when Christ separates the wicked from the righteous. That period is still in the future. (See essay: What and When is the Time of the End?)

It is evident--by the Watchtower's lack of understanding in connection with the king of the north, the king of fierce countenance, the prophecy of the 11-horned beast, and the metallic colossus--that the book is still sealed. We, may, though, be counted as those "roving about" that are earnestly endeavoring to gain the true knowledge. It should be noted, though, that all of the various prophecies of Daniel conclude the same way; with some aspect of Christ's kingdom intervening. The exception, of course, is the 4th chapter of Daniel. But, even that chapter lends itself to applying to Christ in that he is the 'lowliest one of mankind,' as the prophecy describes. So, it would not be wise to dismiss the 7-times as applying only to Nebuchaddnezar's period of madness. Seeing that all prophecy really is tied to Christ, and the fact that Daniel is still sealed, it may well be that the true significance of 7-times are still encrypted until the arrival of Christ for judgment.

As for the reference to "the appointed time" at Daniel 11:29, that expression does not necessarily refer to the "appointed times of the nations" that Christ referred to. There are several places in prophecy that use that same expression but that do not connect to the period of the First World War. For example, Habakkuk 2:3 says: "For the vision is yet for the appointed time, and it keeps panting on to the end." The vision of Habakkuk has to do with the unleashing of Jehovah's tyrannical avenging agent that is going to demolish the world system as we know it. Obviously, the appointed time for that horrifying vision to become a reality has not arrived. Since Daniel 11:29 does not make any clear specific reference that the appointed time is the same appointed time for Jerusalem to be trampled on, we should be cautious about making those kinds of connections.

As for the fulfillment of Matthew 24:14, Jehovah's Witnesses have certainly made great strides in publishing the kingdom message throughout the earth. The hundreds of different languages that our message has been translated into is very impressive indeed.

But, according to prophecy, our work only begins once the tribulation commences. The problem is that we are greatly disadvantaged because we cannot see the future. So, we are forced to try and match up present realities to the prophecy at hand. It is extremely difficult for us to project how things might develop in the face of unforeseen events. That's why our attachment to 1914 is so unfortunate. While that date has served as a rallying point, it has also blinded us to the potential for many prophecies to unfold in the future. That's because we have stamped a rather large body of prophecies as being fulfilled when that may not be the case at all.

In connection with Matthew 24:14, Revelation 10:11 has Christ commissioning his slaves to "prophesy again with regards to peoples and nations and tongues and many kings." The Watchtower teaches us that that prophecy in Revelation was fulfilled back in 1919, when the anointed were re-energized after their difficult period. However, Revelation 10:7 has the Lord of the earth declaring that "there will be no delay any longer" and that the sacred secret of God "is indeed brought to a finish." Are we really to believe that God's purpose was revealed and concluded back in 1919? What about the angel's declaration that "there will be no delay any longer"? The 2nd chapter of Habakkuk, cited above, even acknowledges that the vision might appear to be delaying. Isn't it unreasonable to assert that there has not been a seeming delay over the last century that Jehovah's Witnesses have been in expectation of Jehovah's judgments?

Given the fact that there are many things we do not yet understand, how can we say that God has brought his work to a finish? And if we humbly accept that Jehovah's sacred secret has not yet been fully revealed, then we can grasp the fact that Christ is yet to commission his followers to "prophesy again with regards to peoples and nations and tongues and many kings." So, while from our perspective this side of Christ's arrival, it may seem as if we have accomplished the preaching enough to satisfy the prophecy, there is a soft voice of reason emanating from behind the veil that suggests that a new reality may soon present itself to us.

As for the third aspect of your question about Christ "subduing in the midst of his enemies:' Jesus has always been operating in the midst of his enemies. The 1st century evangelizing work was accomplished in the face of stiff enemy opposition. It has been the same in the 20th century. The 110th Psalm applies to the actual time when Christ arrives for judgment. That prophecy goes on to foretell that as a result of Christ ruling in the midst of his enemies that he will break kings to pieces and: "He will execute judgment among the nations; he will cause a fullness of dead bodies." It is clear that Christ has not taken up his judgment yet.

Since all previous "prophetic" interpretations of when the battle of Armageddon would be fought have been "in error," what date has it been "rescheduled" for?

Armageddon has not been rescheduled. The vision of Habakkuk addresses our situation, where Jehovah tells the prophet: "For the vision is yet for the appointed time, and it keeps panting on to the end, and it will not tell a lie. Even if it should delay, keep in expectation of it; for it will without fail come true. It will not be late."

From the perspective of Jehovah's Witnesses, the vision certainly appears to be delaying. It calls to mind a dog tired out from a long overland chase, but panting on relentlessly, regardless of its fatigue. Granted, it has been a test of faith for us to stay in expectation for decades, watching, waiting for Jehovah's judgment day to commence. And that's why the next verse in Habakkuk says that the righteous one will live by virtue of his faithfulness.

The greatest irony is that in the last few years, while many of Jehovah's Witnesses have given up expecting to see the end of this system, it is now becoming increasingly evident that the world is facing a period of turbulence that has the potential to far surpass the horror of the last world war and to fulfill the prophecies in a way that Jehovah's Witnesses have not anticipated. That is why Jehovah exhorts his witnesses to stay awake and on the watch because things are not going to unfold exactly the way we imagine.

Is it absolutely necessary to confess one's sins to the elders to have spiritual healing? What is the situation with someone who has, for example, been disfellowshipped, been reinstated, but has committed gross sins again. Fear of being ostracized again from friends and loved ones may prevent such a one from confessing to the elders. If they have privately worked hard to restore things with Jehovah, begged for his forgiveness, and personally repented again, do they really need to go to the elders and suffer the humiliation and terrible emotional anxiety of being disfellowshipped again? In view of the fact that it is questionable whether the elder arrangement and indeed the organization as a whole presently have Jehovah's blessing, can one 'bypass' the elders judicially and still have true forgiveness from Jehovah? I would really appreciate your sincere thoughts.

The primary purpose of disfellowshipping is to protect the reputation and spiritual purity of the congregation. The account in 1st Corinthians, where Paul strongly advised the Corinthians to 'remove the wicked man from their midst,' was necessary because the man had not repented and the congregation was apparently unconcerned about it. Had the man repented on his own there would have been no need for Paul to counsel them to take judicial action against him.

Ultimately, it is up to Jehovah God to grant us forgiveness. And his forgiveness is manifested in our own conscience. That's why the scripture says that we make a request to God for a good conscience. So, if your conscience indicates to you that Jehovah has forgiven you, then you should move forward in the knowledge that God has judged your repentance to be genuine. However, if your conscience indicates otherwise, then it would be wise to do as James counsels, to call the older men.

Hello Watchman, my question is about Revelation 20:5, where it says: "(The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.)..." We learn that the resurrection will be during the 1000 years, but the text clearly states otherwise. What are your thoughts about that?

The Watchtower's explanation of that verse is reasonable and satisfying. They point out that in that verse, the dead coming to life does not have reference to the actual resurrection of the dead, but rather, their coming to life means that they are finally relieved from the condemnation of death due to Adam's sin. That is in harmony with the fact that at the end of the 1,000 year reign of Christ, death will have been brought to nothing and humans will once again enjoy the perfection that Adam and Eve briefly enjoyed in the Garden of Eden.

Notice, too, that the verse in question does not say that the dead come back to life, but that they "come to life." There is a subtle difference. Most importantly, we have to remember that we are looking at things from Jehovah's perspective. And in God's viewpoint we are in a deathly state, even though biologically we are living. But, because we are all under condemnation to death, the Bible speaks of sinful mankind as being dead. For example, Colossians 2:13 says of anointed Christians: "Though you were dead in your trespasses and in the uncircumcised state of your flesh, God made you alive together with him. He kindly forgave us all our trespasses." Notice that God considered Gentiles to be dead in their sins, but that because of his forgiveness they came to life.

That is really what the 20th chapter of Revelation is talking about. While, from Jehovah's standpoint, anointed Christians come alive at the time they are begotten by his spirit (thus, at their resurrection they become immortal), "the rest of the dead," meaning mankind in general, have to wait until such time as they actually become perfect and sinless before they are granted everlasting life.

We are taught by the WT that Jehovah has 'allowed' all the suffering, etc., to prove a point, namely that man cannot live without his guidance - although I have yet to see this anywhere in the bible. My question is this: If the above is true, what justification was there to end the world with the flood. Is this not an admission of failure and why start again with just the 8 survivors…? Surely, wiping out the whole of mankind (save the 8) must have given rise to dissent in the heavens just as it would if the same thing happened on Earth. Is this not double standard of a sort?

Why does the Revelation say that at its birth the kingdom [male child] is caught away to God's presence for it's protection when it's King has already been given all the necessary power and authority in heaven and on earth? And in what way is God's woman in need of protection in a place of safety thus resulting in the Dragon going off to wage war on the remaining ones of her Seed?

WHY WOULD JESUS NOT NAME JEHOVAH GOD BY HIS NAME THE BIBLE ALWAYS SHOWS JESUS CALLED HIM FATHER?